I have to ask from somebody who actually went to law school: in what way does stare decisis inform or guide this question of the individual mandate and the Commerce Clause? That is, for 200+ years, everybody seemed to agree that the Constitution can't be used to force you to enter into a transaction with a private entity. Does that mean we "do not alter that which has been established?" Just wondering.
Extra - Dave Kopel doesn't think the debate is over, either.
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Waterloo II: The Rematch!
It's all about goal-oriented fundraising with no hope of reaching the goal. Empty sweet talk for the chumps and suckers. Give generously so we can overturn Roe v. Wa... um, we mean Obamacare!
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