The return of Krugman - The single-minded NYT columnist has started a blog and wastes no time in shading the facts to make his case. Can he seriously claim that the "great compression" in income through the mid-1940s was based solely on FDR's New Deal, without a word for World War II when the top tax rate hit 94%? Are there no other factors aside from federal policy (e.g. globalization) to explain widening income disparity today? Puh-leeze.